The menses study says that the ~15% of women who had two doses in one cycle had the biggest effect. ~10% of those women had a clinically significant change in the cycle length (8 days or more), which was ~2.5X more than the unvaccinated group.
So my question about the fertility study is, would it be able to detect an effect on fertility …
The menses study says that the ~15% of women who had two doses in one cycle had the biggest effect. ~10% of those women had a clinically significant change in the cycle length (8 days or more), which was ~2.5X more than the unvaccinated group.
So my question about the fertility study is, would it be able to detect an effect on fertility among women with clinically significant changes in their cycle length? The fraction of women who had two doses in one cycle and then had clinically significant changes in cycle length would be 10% * 15% = 1.5%. Since difference in fertility rates of 2% were not considered significant, I assume the answer is no, we do not have enough evidence to say whether or not getting two doses in one cycle affects fertility. Is that correct?
Cycles are nominally 28 days. That's a mean. The tails of the curve are where this can happen, and for instance, while my Moderna doses were supposed to be 4 weeks apart, my followup was scheduled at 24 days by the clinician. No, I'm not menstruating... but you can see how the timing might work.
The menses study says that the ~15% of women who had two doses in one cycle had the biggest effect. ~10% of those women had a clinically significant change in the cycle length (8 days or more), which was ~2.5X more than the unvaccinated group.
So my question about the fertility study is, would it be able to detect an effect on fertility among women with clinically significant changes in their cycle length? The fraction of women who had two doses in one cycle and then had clinically significant changes in cycle length would be 10% * 15% = 1.5%. Since difference in fertility rates of 2% were not considered significant, I assume the answer is no, we do not have enough evidence to say whether or not getting two doses in one cycle affects fertility. Is that correct?
How would a women receive 2 doses in one and the same cycle? Think about it….
Cycles are nominally 28 days. That's a mean. The tails of the curve are where this can happen, and for instance, while my Moderna doses were supposed to be 4 weeks apart, my followup was scheduled at 24 days by the clinician. No, I'm not menstruating... but you can see how the timing might work.
So, an example of not following the minimum manufacture recommendations; Moderna = 4 weeks (28 days); PfizerBioNTech 3 weeks (21 days).